O Wretched Man That I Am!
Romans 7:14-25 (NASB):
14For we know that the Law is spiritual, but I am of flesh, sold into bondage to sin.
15For what I am doing, I do not understand; for I am not practicing what I would like to do, but I am doing the very thing I hate.
16But if I do the very thing I do not want to do, I agree with the Law, confessing that the Law is good.
17So now, no longer am I the one doing it, but sin which dwells in me.
18For I know that nothing good dwells in me, that is, in my flesh; for the willing is present in me, but the doing of the good is not.
19For the good that I want, I do not do, but I practice the very evil that I do not want.
20But if I am doing the very thing I do not want, I am no longer the one doing it, but sin which dwells in me.
21I find then the principle that evil is present in me, the one who wants to do good.
22For I joyfully concur with the law of God in the inner man,
23but I see a different law in the members of my body, waging war against the law of my mind and making me a prisoner of the law of sin which is in my members.
24Wretched man that I am! Who will set me free from the body of this death?
25Thanks be to God through Jesus Christ our Lord! So then, on the one hand I myself with my mind am serving the law of God, but on the other, with my flesh the law of sin.
Been pondering on this passage for a little while now... it may seem a little schizophrenic at first, but in reality it's a question that faces many people (both Christians and non-Christians who relate it to the Christians that they know). People often ask, "Why is it that as Christians we still sin?" Well the answer to that is basically found in that passage there. But what I've been thinking about is this: today we recognize that our actions are governed by our choices. Even science tells us that our brain sends signals through motor neurones to our muscles, which causes those muscles to contract and results in what we call "motion". Except for certain rare occasions (which we normally term "spasms", although more severe forms such as epilepsy and schizophrenia also exist), we are almost fully in control of our actions - not counting, of course, the vital functions such as breathing and heartbeat which are controlled automatically by the body. Having said that, I remind all of you, my dear readers, that sin is not merely in the physical, material, "action" realm, i.e. it's not just by "doing" sin that we sin - but rather, thoughts and beliefs can also be sin.
If, then, Paul (and I believe that it applies to all Believers who have repented, too) says that with his mind he serves the law of God, but with his flesh he serves the law of sin, and we recognize that actions come as a result of choice, can it be then that Paul, even Paul, chose to sin? Or was he just schizophrenic? (For argument's sake, I'll assume that he wasn't for the rest of this discussion) If he chose to sin, then our conscious, decision-making selves (i.e our mind, brain and body) are part of what what is termed "flesh" which serves the law of sin. If so, then what is this "inner man" which serves the law of God? I used to think that this "inner man" was any part of us which is not physical (which meant that our thoughts and choices were part of this inner man too). But if that is so, then by Paul's statement we would never sin, would we? So this "inner man" must exclude our thoughts and physical choices (choices to act, that is), and it is this inner man that is redeemed from sin while our flesh serves the law of sin. (By the way, I'm not condoning sin here - I'm merely assuming that we as humans can never fully rid ourselves of sin). Think about it. Even judicial systems recognize that if you had no control over your actions, you cannot be penalised for having committed a crime (I think?).
So, here's some questions I'd like to leave with you and if you've got any answers to them, please feel free to discuss them with me or with other people that you know would benefit from such a discussion. Firstly, this "inner man" that has been redeemed - can he still sin? If yes, how does he sin? And how does he stay out of sin? Or if no, then does that mean we are saved forever? And if that were true, then what is the meaning of
"For if we go on sinning willfully after receiving the knowledge of the truth, there no longer remains a sacrifice for sins" (Heb 10:26, NASB)?
14For we know that the Law is spiritual, but I am of flesh, sold into bondage to sin.
15For what I am doing, I do not understand; for I am not practicing what I would like to do, but I am doing the very thing I hate.
16But if I do the very thing I do not want to do, I agree with the Law, confessing that the Law is good.
17So now, no longer am I the one doing it, but sin which dwells in me.
18For I know that nothing good dwells in me, that is, in my flesh; for the willing is present in me, but the doing of the good is not.
19For the good that I want, I do not do, but I practice the very evil that I do not want.
20But if I am doing the very thing I do not want, I am no longer the one doing it, but sin which dwells in me.
21I find then the principle that evil is present in me, the one who wants to do good.
22For I joyfully concur with the law of God in the inner man,
23but I see a different law in the members of my body, waging war against the law of my mind and making me a prisoner of the law of sin which is in my members.
24Wretched man that I am! Who will set me free from the body of this death?
25Thanks be to God through Jesus Christ our Lord! So then, on the one hand I myself with my mind am serving the law of God, but on the other, with my flesh the law of sin.
Been pondering on this passage for a little while now... it may seem a little schizophrenic at first, but in reality it's a question that faces many people (both Christians and non-Christians who relate it to the Christians that they know). People often ask, "Why is it that as Christians we still sin?" Well the answer to that is basically found in that passage there. But what I've been thinking about is this: today we recognize that our actions are governed by our choices. Even science tells us that our brain sends signals through motor neurones to our muscles, which causes those muscles to contract and results in what we call "motion". Except for certain rare occasions (which we normally term "spasms", although more severe forms such as epilepsy and schizophrenia also exist), we are almost fully in control of our actions - not counting, of course, the vital functions such as breathing and heartbeat which are controlled automatically by the body. Having said that, I remind all of you, my dear readers, that sin is not merely in the physical, material, "action" realm, i.e. it's not just by "doing" sin that we sin - but rather, thoughts and beliefs can also be sin.
If, then, Paul (and I believe that it applies to all Believers who have repented, too) says that with his mind he serves the law of God, but with his flesh he serves the law of sin, and we recognize that actions come as a result of choice, can it be then that Paul, even Paul, chose to sin? Or was he just schizophrenic? (For argument's sake, I'll assume that he wasn't for the rest of this discussion) If he chose to sin, then our conscious, decision-making selves (i.e our mind, brain and body) are part of what what is termed "flesh" which serves the law of sin. If so, then what is this "inner man" which serves the law of God? I used to think that this "inner man" was any part of us which is not physical (which meant that our thoughts and choices were part of this inner man too). But if that is so, then by Paul's statement we would never sin, would we? So this "inner man" must exclude our thoughts and physical choices (choices to act, that is), and it is this inner man that is redeemed from sin while our flesh serves the law of sin. (By the way, I'm not condoning sin here - I'm merely assuming that we as humans can never fully rid ourselves of sin). Think about it. Even judicial systems recognize that if you had no control over your actions, you cannot be penalised for having committed a crime (I think?).
So, here's some questions I'd like to leave with you and if you've got any answers to them, please feel free to discuss them with me or with other people that you know would benefit from such a discussion. Firstly, this "inner man" that has been redeemed - can he still sin? If yes, how does he sin? And how does he stay out of sin? Or if no, then does that mean we are saved forever? And if that were true, then what is the meaning of
"For if we go on sinning willfully after receiving the knowledge of the truth, there no longer remains a sacrifice for sins" (Heb 10:26, NASB)?